Thorne et al break it down by race in passing “both black and white Americans were over-represented in our sample (of bankruptcies)”. To me this is not credible, I would have bet blacks have had it much worse and that things have worsened for blacks in the last two decades, so what is the data hiding? Perhaps blacks don’t file for bankruptcies in spite of precarious pecuniary positions, so their actual financial situation as they age is worse? Or they are a smaller fraction of the older population?

I stop to miau to cats.

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